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Answers to Daily MCQs

24th March 2021

Q1: Recently, Artemis mission was seen in news, It is an initiative of which of the following bodies:

     a. NASA

     b. ISRO

     c. ESA

     d. JAXA

Answer: A

Explanation:

Artemis I is NASA’s moon mission, envisaged as a new generation of deep space exploration. It is touted as the next generation of lunar exploration, and is named after the twin sister of Apollo from Greek mythology. Artemis is also the goddess of the moon.

Q2: Article 355 of Indian constitution  is related to which of the following provisions:

     a. Inter-State Trade

     b. Inter-State council

     c. Emergency provisions

     d. Language

Answer: C

Explanation:

Article 355 of the Indian Constitution deals with an emergency provision. It says “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution”

 

Q3: consider the following statements, with reference to the League of Arab States (LAS):

  1. The Arab League was formed in Cairo in 1945.

  2. The administrative centre is located in Doha, Qatar. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Arab League, formally known as the League of Arab States, is a  22 members, regional organization in the Arab world. It is located in Northern Africa, Western Africa, Eastern Africa, and Western Asia. It was formed in Cairo on 22 March 1945 initially with six members: Egypt, Iraq, Transjordan (renamed Jordan in 1949), Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria.

Syria's participation has been suspended since November 2011.

The administrative centre of the Arab League is located in Cairo, Egypt.

23 March 2022

 

Q1: Compulsory licensing, a term recently seen in news is related to which of the following agreements: 

     a. TRIPS

     b. GATT

     c. SPS Agreement

     d. Agreement on Agriculture

 

Answer: A

Explanation:

Compulsory Licensing is a provision introduced under TRIPS in 2012 to allow the government to licence third parties i.e. parties other than the patent holders to produce and market a patented product or process without the consent of the patent owners.

 

Q2: Consider the following statements with respect to Rohingyas:

  1. Rohingyas speak a Bengali dialect.

  2. They are granted full citizenship by Myanmar.

Select the correct statements:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

Rohingyas are an Ethnic group, mostly Muslims. They were not granted full citizenship by Myanmar.

  • They were classified as “resident foreigners or associate citizens”.

22nd March 2021

 

Q1: Exercise LAMITIYE-2022 was recently  conducted between which of the following countries:

     a. India and Philippines

     b. India and Indonesia

     c. India and Seychelles

     d. India and Singapore

 

Answer: C

 

Explanation: LAMITYE-2022 is a Joint Military Exercise between the Indian Army and Seychelles Defence Forces (SDF) is being conducted at Seychelles Defence Academy (SDA), Seychelles.

Q2: Consider the following statements with respect to World Happiness Report 2022:

  1. The World Happiness report is released by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network.

  2. Finland rank 1st in the list for the fifth consecutive year.

Select the correct Option:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The World Happiness report is released by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network every year.

Statement 2 is correct: Finland becomes the happiest country for the fifth consecutive year in 2022. India ranks 136 in the report.

 

Q3: As per the African cheetah ReIntroduction plan, Cheetahs will be introduced in which of the following National Park:

     a. Kanha National Park

     b. Bandhavgarh National Park

     c. Kunno National Park

     d. None of the Above.

Answer: C

17th March 2022

 

Q1: Which of the following are the member countries of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?

  1. Angola

  2. Nigeria

  3. Indonesia

  4. Venezuela

  5. Qatar

Select the correct answer code:

     a. 1, 2, 3, 4 

     b. 1, 2, 4, 5 

     c. 1, 2, 4 

     d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer: C

Explanation:

The current OPEC members are the following: Algeria, Angola, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, the Republic of the Congo, Saudi Arabia (the de facto leader), the United Arab Emirates and Venezuela. Ecuador, Indonesia and Qatar are former members

 

Q2: Consider the following statements.

  1. The President of India can appoint duly qualified persons as additional judges of a high court for a temporary period.

  2. A person who has served as a Secretary to the Government of India cannot be a judge of a High Court.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

     a. 1 only 

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2 

     d. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: A

Explanation

The President can appoint duly qualified persons as additional judges of a high court for a temporary period when: there is a temporary increase in the business of the high court; or there are arrears of work in the high court.

15th March 2022

 

Q1: Consider the following statements with reference to Man-Portable Air-Defence Systems:

  1. They are long-range, lightweight and portable surface-to-air missiles.

  2.  They are more effective in targeting low-flying aircrafts.

Select the correct statements:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

Man-Portable Air-Defence Systems are short-range, lightweight and portable surface-to-air missiles. They can be fired by individuals or small groups to destroy aircraft or helicopters. They help shield troops from aerial attacks and are most effective in targeting low-flying aircrafts.

 

Q2: GEM Global Entrepreneurship Monitor (GEM) is a survey led by:

     a. World Bank

     b. Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India, Ahmedabad

     c. Reserve Bank of India

     d. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

GEM carries out survey-based research on entrepreneurship and entrepreneurship ecosystems around the world and is being led by Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India, Ahmedabad. 

 As per Global Entrepreneurship Monitor (GEM) India Report (21-22), India’s entrepreneurial activity expanded in 2021, with its Total Entrepreneurial Activity rate(percentage of adults (aged 18–64) who are starting or running a new business) increased to 14.4% in 2021, up from 5.3% in 2020.

14th March 2022

 

Q1: Consider the following statements with respect to Gallium Nitride:

  1. It has higher thermal conductivity and lower resistance.

  2. The power devices based on Gallium Nitride are less effective than Silicon based devices.

Select the correct statement:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer:  A

 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Gallium Nitride is an extremely  hard, mechanically stable wide bandgap semiconductor. It has higher breakdown strength, faster switching speed, higher thermal conductivity and lower on-resistance. 

 

Statement 3 is incorrect: The power devices based on GaN significantly perform better than the silicon-based devices.

 

Q2: Mangalajodi, a place recently seen in news is located in which of the following places?

     a. Andhra Pradesh

     b. Odisha

     c. West Bengal

     d. Jharkhand

 

Answer: B

Explanation

Mangalajodi is an olden village under Tangi, Odisha block in Khordha district of Odisha at the northern edge of Chilika Lake.

 

Q3: With reference to International Criminal court consider the following statements:

  1. The headquarters of ICC are based in The Hague in the Netherlands.

  2. It has jurisdiction over four main crimes genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime of aggression.

Select the incorrect statements:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: D

Explanation:

International Criminal Court  headquarters is located in The Hague in the Netherlands. It has jurisdiction over four main crimes inlcuidng genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime of aggression.

13th March 2022

Q1: Consider the following statements with respect to the Most Favoured Nation:

  1. It highlight the principle of non-discrimination.

  2. There is no formal procedure for suspending MFN treatment.

Select the correct answer:​

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

Most favoured Nation is the principle of non-discrimination , so that the World Trade Organization’s 164 members treat each other members equally so they can all benefit from each other’s lowest tariffs, highest import quotas and fewest trade barriers for goods and services.

 

Statement 2 is correct: There is no formal procedure for suspending MFN treatment. Further, it is not clear whether members are obliged to inform the WTO if they do so.

 

Q2: With reference to Maternal Mortality rate in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Kerala has the lowest maternal mortality rate in India.

  2. National maternal mortality rate of India is 30.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: As per the Sample Registration System (SRS), Kerala has the lowest maternal mortality ratio of 30. 

Statement 2 is in correct: The National average of maternal mortality rate of 103

 

Q3: Free standing temples came to origin under the rule of:

     a. Mauryans

     b. Gupta period

     c. Satavahanas

     d. Palas

Answer: B

Explanation

Free standing temples came to origin under the rule of Gupta period.

12 March 2022

 

Q1: Myanmar is not the member of which of the following organisations?

     a. BIMSTEC and SAARC

     b. BIMSTEC and IORA

     c. SAARC and IORA

     d. None of the above

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

Member of SAARC: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka

 

BIMSTEC: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thailand

 

IORA: France, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, the United Arab Emirates and Yemen.

 

Q2: Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Ex Dharma Guardian?

     a. An annual exercise between the Indian Army and Japanese army.

     b. A trilateral exercise of the Indian army, navy and airforce.

     c. It is a biennial exercise between Indian and Nepal Army.

     d. It is an annual exercise between India and France.

 

Answer: A

 

Explanation:

Ex DHARMA GUARDIAN is an annual exercise between Indian Army and Japanese Ground Self Defence Force. In 2022 it commenced on 27 February 2022 at Foreign Training Node, Belgaum successfully and culminated on 10 March 2022.

 

Q3: Consider the following statements with respect to the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant:

  1. It is the largest power plant in India situated in Tamil Nadu.

  2. It is being developed in association with Russia.

Select the correct statements:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is the largest power plant in India situated in Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu.

 

Statement 2 is correct: It is built in collaboration with Atomstroyexport, the Russian state company and Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL), with an installed capacity of 6,000 MW of electricity.

 

11 March 2022

 

Q1:  Recently, a WHO global centre for traditional medicine was set up in which of the following states of India?

     a. Kerala

     b. Delhi

     c. West Bengal

     d. Gujarat

Answer: D

Explanation:

WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (WHO GCTM) in Jamnagar, Gujarat under Ministry of AYUSH  by signing a Host Country agreement between the Government of India and the World Health Organisation (WHO).

 

Q2: PARAM Ganga a  term, recently seen in news, is related to:

     a. Supercomputer

     b. A revamped mission to clean Ganga

     c. A missile

     d. A Naval Vessel

Answer: A

Explanation:

The National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) has deployed “PARAM Ganga”, a supercomputer at IIT Roorkee, with a supercomputing capacity of 1.66 Petaflops.

 

Q3: consider the following statements with respect to the inflation:

  1. The Monetary Policy committee is mandated to ensure the inflation rate of 4% (+/- 2%) for the Indian economy.

  2. When inflation rises to 10% or more then that is known as Galloping inflation.

Select the correct answer:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     c. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Both the statements are correct. 

 

10th March 2022

Q1: Which of the following countries are part of the Motor Vehicles Agreement?

     a. Bhutan, Bangladesh, India, Nepal

     b. Bhutan, India and Nepal

     c. Bangladesh, India and Nepal

     d. Bhutan, Bangladesh and Nepal

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

In 2015, the Motor Vehicles Agreement was signed between Bhutan, Bangladesh, India, Nepal. However the act was not ratified by the Bhutan government. Hence at present Bangladesh, India and Nepal are a part of the Motor Vehicles Agreement.

 

Q2:  Consider the following statements with respect to Rupee Depreciation

  1. If the price of dollars increases in rupee terms that is known as rupee Depreciation.

  2. It is likely to trigger inflation in the Indian market.

Select the correct answer:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is correct:If the price of dollars increases in rupee terms that is known as rupee Depreciation. For example, if earlier a dollar could be bought in 65 rupees and now it required 70 rupees to buy one dollar. Then in this scenario the rupee is depreciated.

Statement 2 is correct:

Rupee depreciation will lead to increase in the prices of imports and thus will increase the prices of goods.

 

Q3: Endurance ship was recently seen in the news. It is related to which of the following?

     a. It is a naval vessel sent to the Indian ocean for seabed mining.

     b. It is a polar explorer sent to Antarctica.

     c. It is a polar explorer sent to the Arctic.

     d. It is a naval vessel sent to the Pacific ocean for seabed mining.

 

Answer: B

Explanation

It is a polar explorer sent to Antarctica a century ago, which was now found underneath the Antarctic ice.

 

8th March 2022

Q1: International women day is celebrated to:

     a. Encourage and empower the women

     b. To celebrate the cultural, political, and socioeconomic achievements of women.

     c. To celebrate the contribution of Women political leaders in the growth and development of the country.

     d. To discourage female foeticide.

Answer: B

Explanation:

International Women's Day (IWD) is celebrated annually on March 8 to commemorate the cultural, political, and socioeconomic achievements of women.
The movement was spurred by the universal female suffrage movement that had begun in New Zealand, IWD originated from labour movements in North America and Europe during the early 20th century.

 

The theme for this year’s observance is “Gender equality today for a sustainable tomorrow”.

 

Q2: SLINEX exercise is a maritime exercise between which of the following countries?

     a. Singapore and Indonesia

     b. Srilanka and Indonesia

     c. Srilanka and India

     d. Singapore and India

Answer: C

Explanation: SLINEX exercise is a maritime exercise between Srilanka and India.

 

Q3: Consider the following statement with respect to The Truth-Seeker’s Society:

  1. It was established  1873 by Jyotirao-Savitribai Phule.

  2. The Samaj advocated for social changes that went against prevalent traditions, including economical weddings, inter-caste marriages, eradication of child marriages, and widow remarriage.

Select the correct statements:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

Satya Shodhak Samaj also known as  the Truth Seeker's Society was established  1873 by Jyotirao-Savitribai Phule. The Samaj advocated for social changes that went against prevalent traditions, including economical weddings, inter-caste marriages, eradication of child marriages, and widow remarriage.

 

5th March 2022

Q1: Zaporizhzhia Nuclear power plant, recently seen in News is located in which of the following countries?

     a. Russia

     b. Ukraine

     c. Iran

     d. Saudi Arabia

 

Answer: B

Explanation: 

 Zaporizhzhia Nuclear power plant is located in ukraine and was in news as Russian forces attacked on the nuclear power plant in Zaporizhzhia during the ongoing crisis.

 

Q2: Consider the following statements with reference to resolution on Plastic pollution:

  1. It was adopted under the aegis of U.N. Environment Assembly.

  2. It is a legally binding resolution till 2024.

Select the correct answer:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

The U.N.  Environment Assembly has voted in an anonymous voting  to adopt a resolution that paves the way for a legally binding agreement on plastic pollution by 2024.

 

Q3: The headquaters of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) are located in which of the following cities?

     a. Shanghai

     b. Philippines

     c. Beijing

     d. Jakarta

Answer: B

Explanation: 

The headquaters of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) are located in Beijing. 

It was set up on January 16, 2016 and has 105 members. China is the AIIB’s largest shareholder with a 26.5% voting share. India is the second-largest, with 7.5%, followed by Russia, which has a 5.97% voting share. Belarus is also a member.

 

4th March 2022

Q1: Consider the following statements with reference to National Human Rights Commission:

  1. It has the power to punish the offender as well.

  2. NHRC has the power of Civil court.

Select the correct statements:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

The National Human Rights Commission NHRC has the power of Civil court. It  does not have the power to punish the offender but its functions are recommendatory in nature. 


 

Q2: Consider the following statements with reference to Indus water Treaty:

  1. The Indus water treaty was brokered by the World Bank between India and Pakistan.

  2. As per the treaty Chenab, Ravi and Jhelum were given to Pakistan.

Select the correct statements 

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Indus water treaty was brokered by the World Bank between India and Pakistan in 1960.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Chenab, Jhelum and Indus were the river given to Pakistan And Beas, Sutlej and Ravi were given to India.

Q3: Mekedatu water Project is located on which River?

     a. Krishna

     b. Cauvery 

     c. Tungabhadra

     d. Pennar

Answer: B

Explanation: Mekedatu water project is built on the Cauvery River.

3rd March 2022

Q1: Consider the following statements with respect to Trade Deficit:

  1. It includes trades both in goods and services.

  2. It is also known as current account deficit

Select the correct statements:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: A

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is correct: Trade deficit occurs when imports of goods as well as services exceed the exports of goods and services.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Though the trade deficit is a part of Current account deficit. However, current account deficits have other components as well like net income and transfer payments

Q2: Which of the following countries are the bordering countries of Black sea?

     a. Bulgaria, Romania, Macedonia, Turkey. 

     b. Moldova, Romania,Georgia, Turkey. 

     c. Turkey, Georgia, Macedonia

     d. Turkey, Romania, Bulgaria

Answer: D

Explanation:

Border countries of black Sea are: Bulgaria, Romania, Russia, Ukraine, Turkey, Georgia.

Q3: consider the following statements with respect to Fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG):

  1. They are the goods that are sold quickly and at a relatively low cost. 

  2. Packaged food and cosmetics are examples of FMCG goods.

Select the correct statements:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Fast moving consumer Goods are also known as consumer Packaged goods. The main characteristics of these goods are that they are sold at a faster pace and at a relatively low price.

Statement 2 is correct: Examples of such goods include: foods, beverages, toiletries, candies, cosmetics, over-the-counter drugs, dry goods, and other consumable.

 

2nd March 2022

Q1: consider the following statements with reference to ‘wet bulb’ temperature

  1. Wet bulb temperature is the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled by the evaporation of water into the air at a constant pressure

  2. At 100% relative humidity, the wet-bulb temperature is equal to the air temperature

Select the correct Answer:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Wet bulb temperature is the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled by the evaporation of water into the air at a constant pressure

Statement 2 is correct:  At 100% relative humidity, the wet-bulb temperature is equal to the air temperature. At lower humidity the wet-bulb temperature is lower than dry-bulb temperature because of evaporative cooling.

 

Q2: consider the following statements with respect to compensation Cess:

  1. The Compensation Cess is a Cess that will be collected on the supply of select goods and or services or both till 1st July 2022

  2. This Cess will also be payable by those persons who have opted for com- pensation levy.

Select the correct statements:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: A

Explanation:

The compensation was envisaged inorder to balance out the losses incurred by the state due to implementation of GST. The Compensation Cess will be collected on the supply of select goods and or services or both till 1st July 2022

This Cess will not be payable by those persons who have opted for com- pensation levy.

 

Q3: CAATSA is an act imposed by which of the following countries?

     a. Russia

     b. Iran

     c. India

     d. United states of America

 

Answer: D

Explanation:

CAATSA (Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act), the act imposed by the United states of America is intended to put sanctions against its adversaries.

1st March 2022

Q1: MRIYA, a term recently seen in news is related to:

     a. World Largest cargo aircraft

     b. A multilateral naval exercise

     c. A new testing technology for AIDS

     d. None of the above

 

Answer:A

Explanation

MRIYA is the world’s largest cargo aircraft, the Antonov An-225 Known formally as the “Cossack”, its North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) operating code, the world knew the “super-heavy transport plane” better by its Ukrainian name, “Mriya”, or “the Dream”.

 

Q2: What is the commonest element in Jupiter?

     a. Beryllium

     b. Fire, water, glass, steel etc.

     c. There is no atmosphere.

     d. Hydrogen

 

Answer: D

Explanation

Jupiter is mainly composed of hydrogen and helium. Jupiter does not have enough mass to ignite fusion and become a star like our Sun. Without that mass, Jupiter is also too cold for fusion. If Jupiter were to become 80 times more massive it would be able to generate enough heat for fusion through gravitational compression. 

 

Q3: Donbas region consists of:

     a. Luhansk and Kharkiv

     b. Luhansk and Donetsk

     c. Donetsk and Kharkiv

     d. Dnipropetrovsk and Luhansk

Answer: B

Explanation:

Donbas region is composed of Luhansk and Donetsk of Ukraine.

 

 

26th February 2022

Q1: Which of the following statements best describes the bloatware?

     a. They are needless programs that take a toll on your device’s performance.

     b. It is a malware that employs encryption to hold a victim's information at ransom.

     c. It is a type of malware that controls or filters Web content.

     d. It is any software that instals itself on your computer and starts covertly monitoring your online behaviour without             your knowledge or permission.

 

Answer: A

Explanation:

Bloatwares are the kind of softwares which are unwanted programs and take a toll on the performance of the devices. These apps generally run in the background are hidden and locating them becomes a tough job for the users. It could be any software on your computer, phone or tablet that consumes a lot of resources like memory, storage and battery life.
 

Different types of bloatwares found on devices

  • Utilities: They come from manufacturers and third-party developers and are usually pre-loaded on your device. These offer added functionality to your device.
     

  • Trialware: Users can experience the app as most of them offer free trial modes in new devices. However, these programs keep on consuming your device’s resources, even after the trial period is over.
     

  • Adware: they typically get downloaded while downloading softwares from the internet.

Q2: Consider the following statements with respect to HIV( Human Immuno Virus):

  1. Human Immuno Virus attacks the immune system by destroying the body’s CD4 immune cells.

  2. CD4 cells are a type of B-cells lymphocytes.

Select the correct statements:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 & 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

Human Immuno Virus attacks the immune system by destroying the body’s CD4 immune cells. HIV is transmitted from person to person through bodily fluids including blood, semen, vaginal secretions, anal fluids and breast milk. A person infected with HIV is likely to develop symptoms of AIDS over a period of time when his/er immune system is too weak to fight HIV infection.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

CD4 cells are a type of T-cells lymphocytes.

Q3: Char- Chinnari Island is located in which of the following states?

     a. Odisha

     b. Andhra Pradesh

     c. Lakshadweep

     d. Jammu and Kashmir

Answer: D

 Explanation:

Char- Chinnari Island is located in dal lake in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.

 

25th February 2022

Q1: With reference to the Battle of Saraighat, consider the following statements:

  1. It was fought between the Mughals and the Ahom Kingdom.

  2. In this battle Ahom army defeated the Mughal army.

Select the correct statements using the code given below:

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: C

 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

     The Battle of Saraighat was a naval battle which was fought in 1671 between the Mughal Empire led by the Kachwaha king, Raja Ram Singh 1, and the Ahom Kingdom which was led by Lachit Borphukan on the river banks of Brahmaputra, near Saraighat  in present day Guwahati, Assam, India.

 

Statement 2 is correct:

Ahom Kingdom managed to  defeat the mughal forces by using brilliant uses of the terrain, clever diplomatic negotiations to buy time, guerilla tactics, psychological warfare, military intelligence and by exploiting the sole weakness of the Mughal forces i.e. Navy.

 

Relevance: The President of India will be inaugurating the year long celebrations of the 400th Anniversary of Lachit Borphukan.


 

Q2: Consider the following statements:

  1. India is the world's largest exporter of wheat.

  2. Turkey is the world's largest importer of wheat.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: D

 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Russia is the world largest exporter of wheat with 18% of global exports

Statement 2 is not correct: Egypt is the world's largest importer of wheat.

 

Q3: which of the following will not  act as the supply side factors for inflation?

     a. Decrease output of oil.

     b. Increase government spending.

     c. Mandatory increase in the wages of labour

     d. A recent technology upgradation in the machinery

Answer: B

24th February 2022

Q1: Consider the following statements with respect to Khajuraho temples

  1. They are the Vesara Style temples built by the chandela dynasty.

  2. It has both Hindu and Jain temples.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

    a. 1 only

    b. 2 only

    c. Both 1 and 2

    d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:

Khajuraho temples are the Nagara style temples which were built by the Chandela dynasty during 950-1050 AD.

 

Statement 2 is correct: It has both Hindu as well as Jain temples.

 

Q2: Consider the statements with respect to Organisation for security and cooperation in Europe:

  1. The chairmanship of the body revolves among the Foreign Ministers of member nations.

  2. It has members from three continents namely North America, Europe and Asia.

  3. India is a partner for cooperation in OSCE.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

    a. 1 and 2 only

    b. 1 and 3 only 

    c. 1, 2 and 3 

    d. 2 and 3 only

 

Answer: D

 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The chairmanship of the body revolves among the Foreign Ministers of member nations.

 

Statement 2 is correct: It has a total of 57 members from across three continents namely North America, Europe and Asia.

 

Statement 3 is incorrect:  India is not a partner for cooperation in OSCE. Afghanistan, Australia, Japan, The Republic of Korea, Thailand are the 5 asian members of cooperation.

 

Q3: India has recently signed a CEPA comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement with which of the following countries/ regional bloc:

    a. France

    b. U.K.

    c. U.A.E.

    d. RCEP

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

India has recently signed a CEPA comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement with U.A.E.

23rd February 2022

Q1: which of the following countries is not a member of Indo-pacific Quad Grouping?

    a. Japan

    b. Australia

    c. China

    d. United States of America

 

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD) or QUAD Group is an informal strategic forum comprising India, Japan, Australia and the United States of America formed in 2017.

 

Q2: Consider the following statements with respect to exercise MILAN:

  1. It is a military exercise conducted by the armies of the participating countries.

  2. The U.S. refused to join the MILAN exercise in 2022.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

     a. 1 only

     b. 2 only

     c. Both 1 and 2

     d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: d

 

Explanation:

 

Exercise Milan is a naval exercise scheduled to be held from February 25 to March 4 for which 46 countries have been invited for the exercise.

 

This is for the first time that the USA will also be participating in the exercise along with the other three Quad members.

India will showcase its Deep Submergence Rescue Vessel (DSRV) capabilities meant to rescue submarines in distress as India is one of the few countries in the region which possesses this capability.

 

Q3:  Minsk 1 accords are related to:

     a. U.K. and EU

     b. Israel and Palestine

     c. Russia and Ukraine

    d. Northern and southern Ireland

 

Answer: b)

 

Explanation:

The Minsk 1 and II accords signed in 2014 and 2015, had brought a tenuous ceasefire between the Russian-backed rebels in Ukraine’s Donbas region, comprising the Donetsk and Luhansk Oblasts, and put forward a formula for resolving the conflict.

11 February 2022

 

Q1: Tattvavāda meaning "arguments from a realist viewpoint" is a philosophy given by which of the following 

     a. Shankaracharya

     b. Adi Shankaracharya

     c. Madhavacharya

     d. Ramanuja

 

Answer: C

 

Explanation:

 

  • Tattvavāda meaning "arguments from a realist viewpoint" is a philosophy given by Madhavacharya. 

  • He was also known as Purna Prajna and Ananda Tirtha.

  • He was a Hindu philosopher. He was the chief proponent of the Dvaita or dualism  school of Vedanta.

  • His greatest work is Anuvyakhyana, a philosophical supplement to his bhasya on the Brahma Sutras composed with a poetic structure.

  • He established a  Krishna Mutt at Udupi with a murti secured from Dwarka Gujarat in CE 1285.

  • He was a critique of:

    • Adi Shankara's Advaita Vedanta 

    • Ramanuja's Vishishtadvaita Vedanta teachings.

 

Q2: Consider the following statements with respect to One ocean summit:

  1. In 2022, it will be organized by India.

  2. It is organized in cooperation with United Nation and World Bank 

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

    a. 1 only

    b. 2 only

    c. Both 1 and 2

    d. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer: B

 

Explanation

One Ocean summit is being organized by France from 9-11 February in Brest with the cooperation of the United Nations and World Bank.

 

Objective of the Summit:

To mobilize the international community to take tangible action towards preserving and supporting healthy and sustainable ocean ecosystems.

 

Q3: Which of the following statements are correct with respect to nuclear fusion?

  1. Fuel created from 1 kilogram of fusion contains about 10 million times as much energy as a kilogram of coal, oil or gas.

  2. It promises to release less carbon.

  3. Its efficiency may increase beyond 100%.

Select the correct statements using the code given below:

    a. 1 and 2 only

    b. 2 and 3 only

    c. 1 and 3 only

    d. 1,2 and 3

 

Explanation:

News:  A team at the Joint European Torus (JET) facility near Oxford in central England generated 59 megajoules of sustained energy during an experiment in December, more than doubling a 1997 record. The nuclear energy was produced in a machine called a tokamak, a doughnut-shaped apparatus. The JET site is the largest operational one of its kind in the world.

Advantages of nuclear fusion:

  • it promises to be low carbon, safer than how nuclear energy is now produced

  • It can be produced with an efficiency that can technically exceed 100%.

  • A kilogram of fusion fuel contains about 10 million times as much energy as a kilogram of coal, oil or gas. 

Procedure:

  • Deuterium and tritium, isotopes of hydrogen, are heated to temperatures 10 times hotter than the center of the sun to create plasma. 

  • This is held in place using superconducting electromagnets as it spins around, fuses and releases tremendous energy as heat.

  • The record and scientific data from these experiments are a major boost for the ITER, the larger and more advanced version of the JET.

  • The ITER is a fusion research mega-project supported by seven member countries China, the European Union, India, Japan, South Korea, Russia and the U.S. and based in the south of France. 

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